Arcserve OneXafe

Select all the features of OneXafe:
a. Immutable Snapshots
b. lnline Deduplication
c. Realtime Replication
d.All the above

OneXafe File System is based on:
a. EXT4
b. REFS
c. NTFS
d.Immutable Object Store

OneSystem is Web Interface for OneXafe Appliance:
a. Yes
b. No

iDRAC controllers or system inventory will not show the second BOSS card available in OneXafe Appliance:
a. Yes
b.No

OneXafe Appliance has......BOSS cards:
a. One
b. Four
c. Two
d. Three

Select the default username/password for iDRAC:
a. idrac/rootconfig
b. root/admin
c. admin/config
d. administrator/Config

User can find the Hostname and OneXafe Model Details from iDRAC System menu -> System information screen:
a. Yes
b. No

The default username and password for Web Console is:
a. root/password
b. webadmin/config
c. root/admin
d. admin/config

To manage OneXafe Appliance via OneSystem Web Console, user must use:
a. https://onesystem.onexafe.com
b. https://onesystem.storagecraft.com
c. https://onesystem.arcserve.com
d. https://onesystem.exablox.com

For Arcserve Support to access OneXafe remotely "Enable Support Access" check box should be checked under:
a. Web Console> Configuration> Management Tab
b. Web Console> Configuration> Cluster Tab
c. Web Console> Configuration> Network Tab
d. Web Console> Configuration> Support Assist

Select the username and password to login to virtual console:
a. admin/console
b.root/admin
c. root/config
d. admin/config

The virtual console can be accessed from:
a. OneSystem Dashboard
b. iDRAC Dashboard
c. OneSystem Web Console
d. OneXafe configuration Screen

In OneXafe, Snapshots can be promoted as a writeable share:
a. Yes
b. No

All OneXafe appliances by default has redundant 750-watt hot pluggable power supply:
a. Yes
b. No

 
Port Group 1 (PG1) is usually configured for..........Data.
a. Cluster
b. Data
c. Management
d. All the above

Port Group 0 (PG0) is used to for..........Network.
a. Cluster
b. Local
c. Management
d.All the above

........is configured for dedicated cluster network.
a. Port Group 0 (PG0)
b. Port Group 1 (PG1)
c. Port Group 2 (PG2)
d. None of the above

Snapshots can be disabled on shares:
a. Yes
b. No

Which of the following reports are available with OneSystem?
a. Storage Capacity Report
b. Share Utilization Report
c. Deduplication Report
d. All the above

Which of the following data is included in the performance report? (Select all that apply)
a. Network Usage
b. Memory Usage
c. Disk 1/0 Usage
d.CPU Usage

OneXafe supports up to..........Virtual IP Address.
a. 10
b. 40
c. 15
d. 25

OneXafe supports up to......network profiles.
a. 40
b. 15
c. 10
d. 25

The power input range in OneXafe Appliance is:
a. 90 - 180 volts AC
b. 120 - 240 volts AC
c. 100 - 230 volts AC
d. 100 - 240 volts AC

After registering a user in OneSystem, the confirmation email will be sent from:
a. OneXafe@Onesyscem.com
b. Onesystem@Arcserve.com
c. Onesystem@exablox.com
d. OneBlox@exablox.com

Select all the Share Types that can be created in OneXafe:
a. NFS
b. SMB
c. ISCSI
d. CIFS

Which Hypervisors support installing Private OneSystem for OneXafe?
a. VMware
b. Citrix Zen
c. OpenStack
d. Hyper-V

Which of the below roles can be assigned when creating a new user in OneSystem?
a. Delegated Admin
b. Admin
c. User
d. Backup Admin

Select the OneXafe share type that can be used in VMware as Datastore:
a. CIFS
b. ISCI
c. SMB
d. NFS

OneXafe Appliance can be added to Active Directory:
a. Yes
b. No

Select the storage policy that use "Variable-Length Deduplication":
a. Virtual Servers
b. Backup/Recovery
c. Default
d. All the above

Select the Deduplication methods supported by OneXafe:
a. Fixed Length Deduplication
b. Variable Length Deduplication
c. Dynamic deduplication
d. All the above

Which of the below is not a name associated with "Storage Policy" that appears while creating a Share in OneXafe?
a. Physical Servers
b. Backup/Recovery
c. Custom
d. Virtual Servers

OneXafe creates 2 or 3 copies of data depending upon the configuration of one or two drive failure protection:
a. Yes
b. No

1 Drive Failure Protection stores.....copies of data and 2 Drive Failure Protection stores.....copies of data.
a. 2 and 4
b. 0 and 1
c. 2 and 3
d.1 and 2

Any share in a OneXafe Cluster can be replicated up to......other OneXafe Clusters:
a. 2
b. 5
c. 9
d. 4

OneXafe has only one ring configured. Can the user configure replication of shares available in that ring:
a. Yes, OneXafe replication can be configured within a ring
b. No, minimum two rings should be available to configure replication in OneXafe

Incase of disaster, if the source share is unavailable, which  method can be used to bring the replica share on line:
a. Promote the Replica Share as Primary
b. Stop Replication, create a new share in the source and copy the contents from the replica share to the newly created share
c. If Source Share is not available, replica share will automatically stand In for source share
d. None of the above

Which of the following statements is true?
a. While Replicating OneXafe Share to another OneXafe Appliance, the source share and the replica share will be writeable.
b.While Replicating oneXafe Shares to another OneXafe Appliance, the source share will be writeable, and the Replica share will be read-only
 

Select the Possible Options user can choose while adding OneXafe Appliance:
a. Discover OneBlox
b.Discover using Broadcast
c. Discover via DHCP
d.I need to find my OneBlox by IP address
 
For OneXafe appliance, the service tag is located in:
a. Front side near the panel indicator
b. Rear side of the appliance
c. Front Side of the appliance underneath the drive slot
d. Left side of the appliance

When is a Sprint over?

A Sprint in Scrum is considered over when the time-box expires. The end of a Sprint is marked by the conclusion of the Sprint time-box, and it is followed by two key events: the Sprint Review and the Sprint Retrospective. 

It's important to emphasize that a Sprint is a fixed time frame agreed upon by the Scrum Team, typically ranging from one to four weeks. The fixed duration provides a predictable rhythm for the team, allowing for regular inspection, adaptation, and delivery of value. The concept of fixed time-boxed Sprints is fundamental to Scrum and helps manage complexity, foster continuous improvement, and enable adaptability in response to changing requirements.

When is the Sprint Backlog created?

The Sprint Backlog is created during the Sprint Planning meeting, which is one of the key events in the Scrum framework. The Sprint Planning meeting occurs at the beginning of each Sprint and involves the entire Scrum Team, including the Product Owner, the Development Team, and the Scrum Master.

The creation of the Sprint Backlog is a key agenda item during the Sprint Planning meeting. It involves several essential steps:

• Reviewing the Product Backlog: The Product Owner presents the prioritized Product Backlog, which contains all the items (user stories, features, bug fixes, etc.) that could potentially be worked on by the Development Team. These items are usually ordered based on their value and dependencies.
• Selecting Sprint Goal and Items: The Scrum Team collaboratively discusses the Sprint Goal, which is a short statement defining the purpose and objective of the Sprint. Based on this goal and the capacity of the Development Team, a subset of items is selected from the Product Backlog to form the Sprint Backlog.
• Breaking Down and Estimating Tasks: The selected items from the Product Backlog are broken down into smaller, actionable tasks that the Development Team can complete during the Sprint. Tasks are estimated for effort, often using techniques like story points or hours, to provide visibility into the work involved.
• Creating the Sprint Backlog: The tasks, along with their estimates and dependencies, are documented in the Sprint Backlog. This backlog is a dynamic, evolving document that captures the collective understanding of the work to be done during the Sprint.
• Committing to the Sprint Backlog: Once the Sprint Backlog is finalized, the Development Team commits to completing the selected tasks within the Sprint timeframe. This commitment is crucial for fostering accountability and transparency within the team.

With the Sprint Backlog created and commitments made, the Sprint officially begins. Throughout the Sprint, the Scrum Team uses the Sprint Backlog as a guiding tool. They track progress, update task statuses, address impediments, and make adjustments as necessary to ensure the Sprint Goal is achieved.

The Sprint Backlog is not a static document but rather a living artifact that reflects the team's evolving understanding and adaptability. As new information emerges or circumstances change, the team collaborates to update the Sprint Backlog accordingly, maintaining alignment with the Sprint Goal and delivering incremental value with each Sprint iteration.

Who must attend the Daily Scrum?

 

The Daily Scrum, also known as the Daily Standup, is a short, time-boxed event in Scrum that occurs every day during a Sprint. The primary purpose of the Daily Scrum is for the Development Team to synchronize activities, discuss progress, and identify any impediments.The participants in the Daily Scrum include:

1. Development Team:

   • Attendance: The entire Development Team is required to attend the Daily Scrum. This includes all members actively working on the development of the product.
   • Updates: Each team member provides a brief update on their progress since the last Daily Scrum, their plans for the day, and any impediments they are facing.

2. Scrum Master:

   • Attendance: The Scrum Master is present at the Daily Scrum.
   • Facilitation: The Scrum Master facilitates the meeting, ensuring it stays focused, remains within the time-box, and helps to remove any impediments raised by the team members.

3. Product Owner:

   • Attendance: The Product Owner is invited to attend the Daily Scrum but is not mandatory.
   • Observation: The Product Owner may attend to observe and gain insights into the progress of the team, but they are not actively involved in answering the three questions.

Who owns the Sprint Backlog?

The Sprint Backlog is owned collectively by the entire Scrum Team, which includes the Development Team, the Product Owner, and the Scrum Master. While the Development Team is primarily responsible for managing and executing the work detailed in the Sprint Backlog, the ownership is a shared responsibility among all members of the Scrum Team.

While the Development Team has the primary responsibility for the Sprint Backlog, it's crucial to emphasize the collaborative nature of the Scrum Team. The Product Owner and Scrum Master actively contribute to Sprint Planning, refinement activities, and other Scrum events to ensure alignment with overall project goals and to help the team overcome any challenges.

What is included in the Sprint Backlog?

 The Sprint Backlog includes the following elements:

1. Sprint Goal: The overarching objective or purpose for the Sprint, providing a unifying theme for the work undertaken during the Sprint.

2. User Stories or Product Backlog Items: The individual items from the Product Backlog that the Development Team has selected to work on during the Sprint. These are often broken down into smaller, more manageable tasks.

3. Tasks: The specific tasks or sub-tasks required to complete the selected Product Backlog items. Tasks are created by the Development Team during Sprint Planning to represent the detailed work needed to deliver the increments.

4. Estimates: Time or effort estimates associated with each task. These estimates help the team understand the effort required for each task and facilitate tracking progress during the Sprint.

5. Definition of Done (DoD): The criteria that must be met for a Product Backlog item to be considered "done" and potentially releasable. The Definition of Done ensures that the work completed during the Sprint meets the team's quality standards.

6. Capacity Planning: An understanding of the team's capacity for the Sprint, considering factors like team size, individual team members' availability, and any known interruptions or time off.

When should a Sprint Goal be created?

The Sprint Goal in Scrum should be created during the Sprint Planning meeting. The Sprint Planning meeting is one of the key events in the Scrum framework and occurs at the beginning of each Sprint. It is attended by the entire Scrum Team, which includes the Product Owner, the Development Team, and the Scrum Master.

Creating a Sprint Goal is a pivotal step in the Scrum framework, contributing to the clarity, focus, and alignment of the Scrum Team's efforts. The timing for establishing a Sprint Goal is specifically during the Sprint Planning meeting, which marks the commencement of each Sprint cycle.

The Sprint Planning meeting serves as a collaborative platform where the entire Scrum Team, including the Product Owner, Development Team, and Scrum Master, convene to shape the direction and purpose of the upcoming Sprint. Here's a closer look at why and how the Sprint Goal is created during this meeting:

• Collective Collaboration: The Sprint Planning meeting fosters a culture of collective collaboration within the Scrum Team. It provides an opportunity for team members to come together, share insights, and collectively define the objectives for the Sprint.
• Strategic Alignment: The creation of the Sprint Goal is essential for ensuring strategic alignment between the team's efforts and the overall vision and priorities set by the Product Owner. It serves as a guiding beacon that directs the team's focus and decision-making throughout the Sprint.
• Objective Setting: During the Sprint Planning meeting, the team reviews the highest-priority items from the Product Backlog. Through discussions and deliberations, they identify the key objectives and outcomes they aim to achieve by the end of the Sprint.
• Capacity Consideration: The team takes into account their capacity, skills, and resources when formulating the Sprint Goal. They assess what can realistically be accomplished within the Sprint timeframe, considering factors such as team velocity, historical performance, and potential challenges.
• Decisive Direction: The Sprint Goal is crafted as a concise statement that encapsulates the overarching purpose and desired outcomes of the Sprint. It provides a clear and decisive direction for the team, guiding their actions, priorities, and task allocation during the Sprint.
• Adaptability and Focus: The Sprint Goal also allows for adaptability and flexibility within the Sprint. As the team progresses and gains insights, they can refine and adjust their approach while remaining focused on achieving the Sprint Goal.

By creating the Sprint Goal during the Sprint Planning meeting, the Scrum Team sets the stage for a focused, aligned, and purpose-driven Sprint, driving towards the delivery of valuable increments and meeting stakeholder expectations effectively.

What is the role of Management in Scrum?

The role of management in Scrum undergoes a significant transformation compared to traditional management practices. In Scrum, management plays a crucial role in supporting and empowering the Scrum Team to achieve its goals effectively. Let's delve deeper into the role of management in Scrum and how it contributes to the success of agile practices.

One of the primary responsibilities of management in Scrum is to support the Product Owner in gaining insights and information about high-value product features and system capabilities. This support involves aligning the team's efforts with the overall strategic objectives of the organization, prioritizing backlog items based on business value, and ensuring that the product roadmap aligns with customer needs and market trends. By providing strategic guidance and direction, management helps maximize the value delivered by the Scrum Team.

Additionally, management plays a key role in supporting the Scrum Master in driving organizational change that fosters empiricism, self-organization, bottom-up intelligence, and intelligent release of software. This involves creating a culture of continuous improvement, encouraging teams to embrace experimentation and innovation, and promoting transparency and collaboration across the organization. Management also facilitates the removal of impediments and barriers that hinder the team's progress, enabling them to work efficiently and deliver high-quality results.

It's important to note that while the traditional hierarchical role of management may shift in Scrum, it doesn't render management obsolete. Instead, management takes on a different focus—one that emphasizes servant leadership and facilitation. Servant leadership involves putting the needs of the Scrum Team first, empowering team members, and facilitating their growth and development. Management acts as a coach and mentor, providing guidance, support, and resources to enable the team to succeed.

Furthermore, management creates an environment conducive to the success of Scrum Teams by fostering a culture of trust, accountability, and collaboration. This includes promoting open communication, encouraging knowledge sharing, and recognizing and celebrating team achievements. By creating a supportive and empowering environment, management enables Scrum Teams to self-organize, make informed decisions, and deliver value to customers efficiently.

In conclusion, the role of management in Scrum is to support and empower the Scrum Team to achieve its goals effectively. By providing strategic guidance, facilitating organizational change, embracing servant leadership, and creating a conducive work environment, management plays a pivotal role in the success of agile practices and the delivery of valuable products and services to customers.

When does the next Sprint begin?

In Scrum, the start of the next Sprint is typically determined during the Sprint Review and Sprint Retrospective meetings. These two meetings are held at the end of each Sprint.  The next Sprint begins immediately after the conclusion of the previous Sprint. The Scrum Team, including the Development Team, Product Owner, and Scrum Master, participates in the Sprint Planning meeting for the next Sprint. During this meeting, the team plans the work to be done during the Sprint, defines the Sprint Goal, and creates the Sprint Backlog.

In Scrum, the transition from one Sprint to the next is a well-defined and structured process that occurs within the framework's iterative and incremental development cycle. The initiation of the next Sprint is typically determined during two key meetings: the Sprint Review and the Sprint Retrospective.

The Sprint Review and Sprint Retrospective meetings are integral components held at the conclusion of each Sprint. These meetings serve distinct purposes in evaluating the previous Sprint's outcomes, gathering feedback, and planning for the upcoming Sprint.

During the Sprint Review meeting, the Scrum Team, including the Product Owner, Development Team, and Scrum Master, collaborates to review the work completed during the Sprint. This includes demonstrating the potentially shippable product increment to stakeholders, gathering feedback, and discussing any adjustments or enhancements needed. The insights gained from the Sprint Review inform the team's understanding of progress, customer satisfaction, and potential changes or improvements for future Sprints.

Following the Sprint Review, the team convenes for the Sprint Retrospective meeting. The purpose of this meeting is to reflect on the Sprint process itself, focusing on what went well, areas for improvement, and action items for enhancing productivity, collaboration, and effectiveness in the next Sprint. The Sprint Retrospective encourages open communication, feedback sharing, and a commitment to continuous improvement within the Scrum Team.

Once the Sprint Review and Sprint Retrospective meetings are concluded, the Scrum Team proceeds to plan for the next Sprint. This planning occurs in the Sprint Planning meeting, where the team collaboratively defines the Sprint Goal, selects the Product Backlog items to work on, and creates the Sprint Backlog. The Sprint Planning meeting sets the stage for the upcoming Sprint by aligning the team's objectives, priorities, and commitments.

It's essential to emphasize that the duration of a Sprint is predefined and agreed upon by the Scrum Team, typically ranging from one to four weeks. This fixed time frame provides a consistent rhythm for the team's work, facilitates regular inspection and adaptation, and supports iterative development cycles. Once a Sprint commences, its duration remains constant, ensuring a structured and manageable approach to delivering value incrementally within the Scrum framework.

Who can abnormally terminate a Sprint?

In Scrum, the decision to terminate a Sprint is typically made by the Product Owner or the stakeholders. However, this decision is considered an extreme measure and should only be taken under exceptional circumstances. The Scrum Guide provides guidance on this under the section "Abnormal Termination of a Sprint."

It's important to note that the decision to abnormally terminate a Sprint is not taken lightly. The Product Owner or stakeholders must consider the impact on the team, the work already completed during the Sprint, and the overall project goals. The termination should be communicated transparently to the Scrum Team, and any completed increments should be reviewed and potentially released.

After the Sprint is abnormally terminated, a new Sprint Planning meeting is held to plan the next Sprint. The work done in the terminated Sprint should be inspected, and the reasons for the termination should be used as input for future planning and improvement.

Again, the Scrum Guide emphasizes that abnormally terminating a Sprint should be a rare occurrence, and efforts should be made to prevent it through effective communication and collaboration within the Scrum Team and with stakeholders.

 

Aviatrix SE

AWS Public VIF for DirectConnect announces the CIDR ranges of the publicly-available AWS services
a. the selected publicly-available services from all AWS regions
b. the selected publicly-available services from the selected AWS region
c. all publicly- available services from all AWS regions
d. all publicly-available services from the selected AWS region

Private, Public, Transit VIFs (Virtual Interfaces) are terms related to which Cloud element?
a. Azure ExpressRoute
b. AWS Virtual Private Gateway (VGW)
c. AWS DirectConnect
d. AWS Transit Gateway

Azure Firewall (native service):
a. Performs Load Balancing and SNAT automatically
b. Handles UDR updates and route propagation for all the peered spoke VNETs
c. is encrypting the traffic in transit
d. By default provides Malware Protection, IDS (Intrusion Detection) and IPS (Int… 

The IPSec tunnels terminating at AWS TGW/VGW, Azure VPN GW, and other native VPN option in the public in the public clouds, support interconnecting networks with overlapping IP ranges
a. False
b. True

One difference between Microsoft ExpressRoute circuits as compared to other cloud providers direct connect options, is that ExpressRoute is always provisioned as a redundant  pair with two physical connections to the Microsoft Enterprise Edge Routers (MSEE)?
a. False
b. True

Statefull Firewall rule:
a. Is another name for Azure Active Directory Firewall
b. Requires explicit rule for the return traffic
c. Allows the return traffic implicitly
d. Alone can easily satisfy the enterprise security needs

In an Azure setup where all VNETs are directly peered (full-mesh) using VNET Peering
a. It is easy to insert a centralized FW
b. Peering needs to be broken for VNET CIDR change
c. There are no real limitations for bandwidth
d. ExpressRoute Edge Router does the actual routing

AWS Guard Duty automatically enforces its findings through the ingress routing feature, blocking the malicious traffic by default
a. False
b. True

An example of a Network Virtual Appliance (NVA) in Azure would include which of the following?
a. Virtual Network Gateway (VNG)
b. Azure Load Balancer
c. UDR
d. Pal Alto Firewall

Which Aviatrix feature customer might leverage to help prevent connected partners from affecting cloud routing when peered with dynamic routing protocols?
a. VCN Route Audit
b. BGP Route Approval
c. TGW Audit
d. TGW Orchestrator

What is Aviatrix CoPilot?

"Aviatrix CoPilot is a Component of Aviatrix platform that provides end to end visibility showing deployment overview, cloud topology and provides views based on Netflow data"

Aviatrix CoPilot stands out as a crucial component within the Aviatrix platform, offering a comprehensive suite of features designed to enhance visibility, management, and security across complex, multicloud networks. As an integral part of the Aviatrix platform, CoPilot serves as the centralized management interface that provides end-to-end visibility into cloud deployments, topology, and network performance based on Netflow data.

One of the key strengths of Aviatrix CoPilot lies in its ability to offer a global operational view of multicloud networks managed through the Aviatrix Controller. This operational view encompasses various aspects, including deployment overview, cloud topology, and network performance metrics, allowing administrators to gain insights into the overall health and functionality of their cloud infrastructure.

Furthermore, Aviatrix CoPilot plays a crucial role in supporting business-critical cloud networking initiatives. By providing visibility into network resources and consumption patterns, CoPilot enables enterprises to implement intelligent cloud networking strategies. This includes embedding security measures directly into their networks, monitoring traffic flows, and utilizing diagnostic tools to ensure the availability and performance of cloud-based applications.

A standout feature of Aviatrix CoPilot is its capability to track and analyze cloud networking costs. With the ability to attribute network resource consumption to specific business units or cost centers, CoPilot facilitates accurate billing and cost allocation processes. This visibility into cloud networking costs is instrumental in optimizing resource utilization, identifying cost-saving opportunities, and aligning cloud expenses with organizational budgets and objectives.

In summary, Aviatrix CoPilot is a powerful management interface that empowers enterprises to achieve intelligent, secure, and cost-effective cloud networking. By leveraging CoPilot's capabilities for visibility, monitoring, and cost analysis, organizations can enhance their cloud infrastructure management, improve operational efficiency, and drive business success in a multicloud environment.

Arcserve Certified Engineer

In the realm of IT infrastructure and data management, becoming an Arcserve Certified Engineer is a significant achievement that showcases expertise in Arcserve solutions and technologies. This article aims to explore the topics and answers relevant to the Arcserve Certified Engineer examination. Whether you're preparing for the certification exam or seeking to deepen your knowledge of Arcserve products, understanding the exam topics and their corresponding answers is essential for success in managing and optimizing data protection and recovery solutions.

Pre-flight check performed for VMware vm includes (select all that applies)
a. Verifying the disk of the virtual machine
b. Track disk sector
c. Verifying applications-consistent snapshot can be taken for the Vm
d. Power slate of the virtual machine cannot be verified

Deleting the node is not possible if .. (select all that applies)
a. Datastore is encrypted
b. Datastore is stopped
c. Datastore is deduplicated
d. Node running any job

The backend purge and reclamation process scheduled at
a. End of Backup
b. End of Replication
c. Idle time of Datastore
d. Datastore is stopped

Merge job would merge data as per ______ schedule.
a. Backup
b. Replication
c. Retention
d. Throttling

Node guest operating system credentials are mandatory when? (Select all that applies)
a. Using Pre-Flight Check
b. Using Application Log Truncation
c. Pre/Post Backup Commands
d. Update node
 
What is the default agent installation port number?
a. 8014
b. 8020
c. 8015
d. 8021

Each node must be verified when using “Discover Nodes from Active Directory”?
a. Yes
b. No

Which role must be used in order to add Hyper-V cluster nodes?
a. Enterprise Admins
b. Hyper-V Cluster Administrator
c. Administrator
d. Local Administrator

Which of the following Services do not get installed when Arcserve UDP Console alone is installed in a system?
a. Arcserve UDP Identify Service
b. Arcserve UDP Management Port Sharing Service
c. Arcserve UDP RPS Data Store Service
d. Arcserve UDP RPS Port Sharing Service

Can Arcserve UDP Recovery Point Server component be installed without installing Arcserve UDP Agent for Windows?
a. Yes
b. No

Which of the following statements are correct?
a. Arcserve UDP Console can manage remote nodes and recovery point servers form another subnet across a WAN
b. The remote nodes and server in a Site interact with the Console using a gateway
c. The Arcserve Remote Management gateway is installed in Sites
d. The Console cannot connect to the remote nodes directly. Arcserve UDP uses the gateway to establish a connection between the nodes and Console

Account credentials of virtual machine guest OS is required for __________? (Select all that applies)
a. Preflight Check
b. Pre/Post Commands
c. Application Log Purge
d. Replication

Insfrastructure management view lets you manage ______? (Select all that applies)
a. Storage Array
b. Instant Virtual Machines
c. Remote Console
d. SLA Profiles
 
Settings – Database configuration, offers the choice of _______ or ________ authentication modes.
a. Windows Authentication Mode
b. Symmetric-key Authentication Mode
c. SQL Server Authentication Mode
d. Biometric Authentication Mode

Site awareness is available in only in the _______ tab?
a. Settings
b. Reports
c. Resources
d. Dashboard

Activity log can be searched using a combination of the filters (True/False)
a. True
b. False

Which of the following statement is appropriate for an Instant Virtual Disk (IVD) test type in Assured Recovery?
a. IVD mounts the recovery point as local disk and verifies if the recovery point could be mounted.
b. IVD mounts the recovery point as local disk, verifies integrity of volume/file system, and optionally executes the custom script.
c. IVD mounts the recovery point as local disk, verifies integrity of volume/file system, but does not have an option to execute custom script
 

Granular level restore of oracle database restores:
a. Tablespaces
b. Archive logs
c. Control files
d. Parameter files

UNC path uses the _____ protocol.
a. FTP
b. SMTP
c. SMB
d. HTTP

Mount Recovery Point option lets you mount a source disk for backup.
a. True
b. False
 
Arcserve UDP Windows Agent backup destination can be ________
a. Recovery Point Server
b. Local Disk
c. Cloud
d. Network Share

Available VMware transport Methods in UDP are ______?
a. NBD & NBDSSL
b. FTP & SFTP
c. SAN & HOTADD
d. NAS & NFC

The Agent Change Tracking Driver is needed _____?
a. For performing a full backup
b. For performing an Incremental Backup
c. For acting as a Virtual Standby Monitor server
d. For acting as a Host-Based VM Backup Proxy server

Data can be backed up directly to the Recovery Point Server?
a. Yes, the data can be sent to Recovery Point server
b. No, a Data Store must be created on the Recovery Point server to store data

What is the maximum value accepted in the “Concurrent Active Nodes Limit To” field while creating a Datastore
a. 9
b. 99
c. 999
d. 9999

When the BMR is running, where can we see the progress of the BMR in UDP Console?
a. Jobs Tab -> Jobs In Progress
b. Node -> Recent Events
c. Both

What is the default log location for BMR logs?
a. X:\windows\system32\dr\log
b. X:\windows\system32\bmr\log

Which of the following network related options are available while performing Recover VM?
a. Use selected RPS server network for restore traffic
b. Use selected Monitor server network for restore traffic
c. Use selected proxy server network for restore traffic

Which of the following sources could be protected using Arcserve Cloud Console? (select all that apply)
a. Windows Source
b. Linux Source
c. Office 365 Source
d. Sources from Hypervisor
e. UNC or NFS Path

Verify backup verifies the _______? (select all that applies)
a. Backup source data
b. Backups are successful
c. Backup destination data
d. Does backups run as scheduled

Would conversion of backup data happen while creating Instant Virtual Machine?
a. Yes, Conversion of backup data would happen
b. No, Prior conversion will not take place

Backup and Virtual Standby job will run as scheduled after the Instant virtual machine is powered on
a. True
b. False

Virtual Standby “Heartbeat” is used to ______?
a. Monitor the heartbeat of Source node.
b. Monitor the heartbeat of the Hypervisor
c. Monitor the heartbeat of Recovery Point Server
d. Monitor the heartbeat of the Console Server

Multiple replicate tasks can be configured in a plan
a. Yes
b. No

Which of the following NITRO Should be used to perform BMR of a Linux machine?
a. Arcserve UDP Agent for Linux Live CD.
b. ISO created using the Create Boot kit Utility
c. Any Linux ISO
d. All the above

Which of the below scenario supports RPS as the backup destination for Linux Backups?
a. Linux Backup Server added to Arcserve UDP Console
b. Stand-alone Linux Backup Server
c. Any Linux Backup Server installation (either added to console or otherwise) supports RPS
d. All the above

Select all the possible methods to run preflight check on an individual node or group
a. Schedule when configuring a backup plan
b. Right click the node in all nodes and click Pre-Flight check
c. Right click the group in the left pane and click Pre-Flight check
d. Select node and click Pre-Flight check in the Actions drop-down menu

Command which queries and displays the status of purge or disk reclamation
a. as_gddmgr.exe -Purge Start <Data Store name>
b. as_gddmgr.exe -Purge Status <Data Store name>
c. as_gddmgr.exe -Purge StartToReclaim <Data Store name>
d. as_gddmgr.exe -Purge StartToIdentifyObsoletedData <Data Store name>

Values of the on-demand merge job will update the retention values on the respective plans?
a. True
b. False
 
Select the items that will be deleted while deleting a node (select all that applies):
a. Logs associated to the node
b. Plan associated with the node
c. Job history
d. Recovery points associated to the nodes
 

Install/upgrade agent to node can be deployed to maximum _____ number of nodes
a. 8
b. 12
c. 16
d. 32
 
If the user is using local drive as the destination for the backup, the drive used as destination will be excluded from the backup
a. True
b. False
 
After adding a site, a message stating “no site gateway” is displayed. When the remote administrator installs arcserve remote management gateway and successfully provides the gateway authorization code, a green check mark is displayed, and this error would not be seen: is the statement true/false?
a. True
b. False
 
Hyper-v host-based agentless backup can protect
a. Individual VM
b. Hyper-v cluster
c. Hyper-v host
d. All the above
 
Arcserve udp support multifactor authentication?
a. True
b. False
 
Apps that enable using TOTP with authenticator services include _____? (select all that apply)
a. Chrome browser authenticator extensions
b. Google authenticator
c. LastPast authenticator
d. Microsoft authenticator
 
Integrated windows authentication (IWA) facilitates _____ login?
a. Token-based
b. Certificate-based
c. Browser-based
d. Password-based
 
Windows services installed by arcserve udp management console? (Select all that apply)
a. Arcserve event watch service & arcserve udp identity service
b. Arcserve udp management service & arcserve udp management port sharing service
c. Arcserve udp rps port sharing service
d. Arcserve udp update service
 
Select all statement that are appropriate about message ID in activity log
a. Message ID provides a hyperlink to access detailed documentation
b. All entries in the activity log have a message ID
c. The activity logs generated by console. Linux backup server / agent and the copy to tape job do not have message id.
d. The hyperlink in the message id column provides description and solution for that message
 
While performing assured recovery with IVM test type, the recovery point is considered in good state if the VM boots successfully, and the verification script returns successful result within the user-specified time interval. Is this statement true/false?
a. True
b. False
 
While creating an oracle backup plan, in the add a plan windows, the add button under “Source” is greyed out. Select the possible reason
a. The check boxt next to “the prerequisites for creating this plan have been configured” is not selected
b. Oracle is not running on the source machine
c. The RPS Server data store is stopped
d. The oracle source is already part of another backup plan
 
Restore options, block level restore option will ______ the target volume
a. Mount
b. Backup
c. Overwrite
d. Restore
 
Deduplication can be enabled in stand-alone windows agent backup
a. True
b. False
 
We can exclude a specific disk of a virtual machine from backup source, this option is available only if we add a _____
a. virtual machine templates
b. vmware vsphere server
c. individual virtual machine
d. virtual machine containers
 
To add a recovery point server, the port ___ is set by default?
a. 8020
b. 8015
c. 8014
d. 6050
 
________ process will be running in addition to the three “GDDServer.exe” processes one each for Hash role, Index role, and Data role of deduplication data store?
a. AFBackend.exe
b. DSFileServer.exe
c. AFD2DMonitor.exe
A. DataStoreInstService.exe
 
Type of compression options provided in “create a data store” page arcserve?
a. Standard
b. Lossless
c. Lossy
d. maximum
 
What are the prerequisites to create a BMR ISO image for windows 10?
a. ADK for windows 10
b. Windows PE add-on for the ADK
c. The windows AIK
 
If the virtual machine that you are recovering from is powered on, which of the following recovery point would be displayed during BMR
a. Current state recovery point
b. Latest state recovery point
 
Which of these operations can be done in bmr express mode?
a. Disk specific operations
b. Volume/partition specif
c. Disk or volume specific customizations are available only in advanced mode.
 
Which of the following statement is correct?
a. A single file is downloaded directly in the same format, while a folder is downloaded as a zip file
b. A single file and folder are downloaded directly in the same format
 
Which of these portals allow access to the arcserve cloud console? Select all that apply
a. https://cloud.arcserve.com
b. https://support.arcserve.com
c. https://home.arcserve.com
d. https://arcserve.com
 
Right click on the plan and click “backup now” option will always run a full backup?
a. True
b. False
 
Instant vm requires windows network file system (NFS) to be installed on the _____?
a. Recovery point server
b. Hyper-v server
c. Proxy server
d. Recovery server
 
Instant vm might require a reboot after it is created, what will be the most likely cause for the reboot? Select all the apply
a. Windows updates
b. Vmware tools if hypervisor is vmware vsphere
c. Windows activation
d. Integration services if the hypervisor is hyper-v
 
Default protocol selected in virtual standby virtualization server tab is?
a. HTTP
b. FTP
c. HTTPS
d. TLS
 
When a replication task is configured and if you run purge job on the target data store, then the next replication job replicates all sessions to target data store. (true/false)
a. True
b. False
 
Select the statement that are true about “enable instant BMR” option in linux BMR?
a. Arcserve Unified Data Protection Agent for linux first recovers all the necessary data that is required to start the machine. The remaining data are recovered after the target machine is started.
b. The network connection must be constantly available during instant BMR
c. “Enable Instant BMR” restores entire backup data before allowing user to access the restored VM.
d. All the above
 
PFC status column in the UI is not visible by default, It has to be added manually.
a. True
b. False
 
Adding a Merge schedule in each task of a plan is mandatory.
a. True
b. False
 
List of nodes can be exported as zip file and later can be imported.
a. True
b. False
 
Instead of pausing the complete plan, user has an option to pause / resume a specific node in the plan without affecting other nodes in the plan.
a. Yes
b. No
 
----------- option will let you install the agent for one or more nodes from console.
 
a. Update VM information, in Actions drop-down menu of all nodes section.
b. Login to agent console and click upgrade.
c. Install/Upgrade Agent option, In Actions drop-down menu of all nodes section.
d. Check updates from the help menu In agent console of the node managed by console
 
Default port number used for Arcserve UDP Agent component is 8015.
a. True
b. False
 
Arcserve UDP Console does not support Integrated Windows Authentication (IWA) if Console Database Connection uses?
a. Windows Authentication Mode.
b. SQL Server Authentication Mode.
c. Symmetric-Key Authentication Mode.
d. Biometric Authentication Mode.
 
Different ways to open to Arcserve UDP Management Console are? (Select all that applies)
a. Click Windows Start Button. click "Arcserve· and click "Arcserve UDP Console".
b. Open browser. In the address bar type https://localhost8015
c. Open browser. In the address bar type https://<hostname of the console server>:8015
d. Open browser. In the address bar type https://<IPaddress of the console
 
Administrator has permissions to? (Select all that applies)
a. Add new role or delete existing roles.
b. Check and modify Permissions.
c. Rename roles.
d. None of the above.
 
Diagnostic Tool collects the following Windows event logs related data by default.
a. Information Level only.
b. Warning and Error Levels.
c. Warning and Information Levels.
d. Error Level only.
 
Switch Database option in oracle restore is supported for
a. Restore to Alternate location with No Recovery Option selected
b. Restore to Alternate location without No Recovery selected
c. Restore to Original Location
d. None of the above
 
Maximum backup size of UNC or NFS path is__
a. 32 TB
b. 64 TB
c. 128 TB
d. 256 TB
 
Arcserve UDP Windows Agent allows you to (Select all that applies)
a. Backup
b. Replicate
c. Copy Recovery Point
d. Mount Recovery Point
 
Arcserve UDP standalone Windows Agent allows you to (Select all that applies)
a. Backup
b. Replicate
c. Copy Recovery Point
d. Mount Recovery Point
 
Port used to connect to the VMware vSphere Host in "Add nodes to plan" is?
a. 80
b. 902
c. 443
d. 22
 
When the hash data of a deduplication data store is missing or corrupt, still the data store can be imported?
a. True
b. False
 
If a volume is mounted already, you cannot mount it again from the same recovery point.
a. True
b. False
 
Select the features/advantages of using Arcserve Cloud Console.
a. Cloud Console provides a multi-tenant user interface.
b. Does not require hardware and operating system in the on-prem environment to deploy any Arcserve UDP Management console related modules.
c. Need not install Remote Management Gateway component in the On-Prem Site
 
Backup job monitor shows details of? (Select all that applies)
a. Disk Read Throughput
b. Disk Write speed.
c. Network Throughput
d. Size of remaining Data to be backed up.
 
Operating system of the Recovery server can be____________ or later
a. Windows Server 2008
b. Windows Server 2008 R2 (32 Bit)
c. Windows Server 2008 R2 (64 Bit)
d. Windows 11 Pro
 
Supported virtualization platforms for Virtual standby are?
a. Hyper-V
b. EC2
c. Azure
d. KVM
 
Number of snapshots can be created by Hyper-V is_____?
a. 12
b. 24
c. 36
d. 64
 
Which of the following replication related statements are correct?
a. You can replicate the backup data from one data store to another data store on the same RPS Server.
b. You can replicate the backup data from one data store in one RPS Server to another data store in a different RPS Server but managed by the same UDP Console.
c. You can use the same Console to replicate data between different sites
d. Replicate Data Between Data Stores managed from different UDP Consoles)
 
Which of the following optional applications would Linux agent installation file verify at the beginning of the installation?
a. rpc.statd - This application is used by the NFS server to implement the file lock.
b. mkisofs -Arcserve Unified Data Protection Agent for Linux uses this application to create a live CD.
c. mount.nfs -Arcserve Unified Data Protection Agent for Linux uses this application to mount the NFS server.
d. All the above
 
Migration BMR is supported for agent-based and agentless backup. (True/False)
a. True
b. False
 
What are the supported backup destinations for a stand-alone Arcserve UDP Agent installation (Not managed by Arcserve UDP Console)?
a. Local Disk
b. Shared Folder
c. Deduplkauon Data Store
d. Non-Deduplicatlon Data Store
 
What is the port number used for collecting UDP dashboard information for Arcserve backup jobs.
a. 6054
b. 8014
c. 8015
d. 8021
 
Apache and OpenSSL are used in the backend by?
a. Arcserve Event Watch Service
b. Arcserve UDP ldenmy SeMce.
c. Arcserve UDP Management Port Sharing Service.
d. Arcserve UDP Management Service.
 
Default value set for "Concurrent Active Nodes Limit To" is?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
 
Files which help to provide disk size details is________
a. Diskspace.status
b. BackuplnfoDB.xml
c. Statistic.dat
d. SessCFG.ses
 
 
Activity log of Merge job shows________and_____Information
a. Serial Number
b. Range
c. Session Number
d. Size
 
Is it possible for a user with the "Restore Only Role" to create an Instant Virtual Machine?
a. Yes
b. No
 
Which of the following options are available in the Utilities menu while performing BMR?
a. Load Driver Utility
b. Network Configuration
c. Activity Log
d. Run
e. Disk Specific Operation
f. Volume Specific Operation
 
Schedule page lets you define a schedule for? (Select all that applies)
a. Backup
b. Merge
c. Throttle functions
d. Restore
 
Create an Instant VM Wizard, will let you create concurrent instant VMs from Arcserve UDP console
a. True
b. False
 
Pre-flight check performed for Hyper-V VM includes (Select all that applies)
a. Verifying if there is any unsupported disk attached to the virtual machines
b. Cannot run PFC on a suspended Hyper-V virtual machine
c. Verifying application-consistent snapshot can be taken for the VM
d. Verifying if integration services are installed and enabled on the virtual
 
Recovery point retention settings for Custom, Daily, Weekly and Monthly Schedule are enabled when__________schedule is enabled.
a. Retention
b. Backup
c. Replication
d. Throttling
 
Import nodes from vCenter or ESX Server does not display virtual machines which are already managed in Arcserve UDP console.
a. True
b. False
 
A manual backup can be triggerd for a paused node
a. Yes
b. No
 
Which of the following statements related to Arcserve UDP Agent for Windows change tracking driver are correct?
a. Without this driver installed, Arcserve UDP Agent (Windows) cannot perform a verify / incremental backup.
b. This driver is not required if this agent is used as Virtual Standby monitor or host-based VM backup proxy
c. Without this driver installed, Arcserve UDPAgent (Windows) cannot perform any backup
 
Which of the following instruction and registration information would be shared with the remote administrator to install and configure Arcserve Remote Management Gateway?
a. Download Link to download and run the Arcserve Remote Management Gateway setup.
b. Authorization Code
c. Username and Password
 
Reports are generated in______________formats? (Select all that applies)
a. .HTML
b. .csv
c. .XLSX
d. .PDF
 
Arcserve UDP supports Multifactor Authentication?
a. True
b. False
 
Arcserve UDP Windows Agent Backup Data Formats are________
a. Standard
b. Compressed
c. Advanced
d. Encrypted
 
Arcserve UDP Windows Agent backup destination can be_________
a. Recovery Point Server
b. Local Disk
c. Cloud
d. Network Share
 
Use Hardware snapshot whenever possible is set by default in the Advanced Tab.
a. True
b. False
 
"Hash destination is on a solid-state drive (SSD)" option can be enabled to get better performance even when using non-SSDdisks.
a. True
b. False
 
_____ need to be installed on the Recovery server.
a. UDP Console
b. UDP Agent
c. VMware Tools
d. Integration Services
 
Virtual standby converts the recovery points to Virtual machine format.
a. True
b. False
 
Monitor Server need to have_____________component installed.
a. UDP Console
b. UDP Recovery Point Server
c. UDP Agent
d. UDP Gateway
 
Retention settings for Replication task is the same as the Backup Retention settings, it cannot be changed. Is this statement correct?
a. Yes, the retention settings for Replication task cannot be changed.
b. No, replication task can have different retention settings.
 
How to access the user interface for Linux Backup Server?
a. https:/hostname:8014
b. https://hostname:8015
c. ttps://hostname/LBS
d. https://hostname/udp/linux
 
Which of the following statement is true about incremental backup for linux node
a. Arcserve UDP agent for Linux should be installed on each Linux node that has to be protected. The driver gets installed during the agent installation.
b. Install Arcserve UDP Agent for Linux on a Linux node identified as the Linux Backup Server and add other track incremental changes. Linux nodes to the Linux Backup Server using Arcserve UDP. When the backup starts, the UDP drivers are injected to the nodes added to the backup server. These drivers enable UDP to backup these nodes and TRACK INCREMENTAL CHANGES.
c. Arcserve UDP Agent uses archive bits to monitor changed files
d. All the above
 
By default, Host based VM backup can run up to 4 VMware VM, 10 Hyper-V VM and 4 Nutanix AHV backup job concurrently.
a. True
b. False
 
What are the two phases of purge maintenance cycle.
a. Verify hash database
b. Identify Obsolete Data Blocks
c. Deleting old recovery points
d. Disk Reclamation
 
How will you update the nodes with the changes made to the Username and Password.
a. Export and import the node, in Actions drop-down menu of all nodes section.
b. Update node option, in Actions drop-down menu of all nodes section.
c. Remove and readd the node, in Actions drop-down menu of all nodes section.
 
When site related details are modified, which of the below action should be done by the remote administrator on the gateway site?
a. No action is required
b. Gatewaytool.exe is used to register the site based on the instruction information shared by the Source Console administrator.
 
Backup Status Monitor for host-based Agentless Backup for Hyper-V will display (Select all that applies)
a. Compression Percentage
b. Target Recovery Point Server
c. Estimated Time Remaining
d. Source Hypervisor Details
 
In Role Based Authentication, Administrator has permissions to
a. Add new role or delete existing roles.
b. Check and modify Permissions.
c. Rename roles.
d. None of the above.
 
In which format would the log be downloaded when Export option in the Activity Log is used.
a. Downloads the activity log as a .zip file. The zip file would contain a .log file.
b. Downloads the activity log as a .log file.
c. Downloads the activity log as a .zip file. The zip file would contain a .csv file.
 
Instant Virtual Disk (IVD) option in Assured Recovery supports both Windows and Linux nodes. (True/False)
a. True
b. False
 
Deduplication Block Size available are 4KB, 8 KB, 16 KB,______and____
a. 6 KB
b. 12 KB
c. 32 KB
d. 64 KB
 
Arcserve UDP RPS data store "Enable Encryption" use_______level encryption.
a. AES-64
b. AES-128
c. AES-192
d. AES-256
 
Which of the following restore source option should be used to recover from the latest state of a Virtual standby or Instant virtual machine?
a. Restore from a Arcserve Unified Data Protection backup.
b. Recover from a virtual machine
 
Which of these Operation scan be done in BMR Express mode?
a. Disk Specific operations.
b. Volume/Partition Specific Operations.
c. None of the above.
 
Windows Agent Based plan, will let you backup____? (Select all that applies)
a. Azure Storage
b. Oracle Database
c. Microsoft Cluster Nodes and Shared Disk
d. AWS Storage Gateway
 
Instant VM core module runs on the_________server, if the hypervisor is Hyper-V server.
a. Recovery Point Server
b. Console Server
c. Hyper-V Server
d. Recovery Server
 
Which of the components needs to be installed on the recovery server to perform Instant VM?
a. UDP Console
b. UDP Agent
c. VMware Tools
d. Integration Services
 
Replication cannot be performed from dedupe enabled data store to non-dedupe enabled data store. Is this statement correct?
a. True
b. False
 
Virtual Standby is not supported for linux source nodes.
a. True
b. False
 
If more than one set of Recovery points are merged, the recover point server will process _
a. All sets at one time
b. One set at a time
c. One recovery point at a time
d. All recovery points at one time
 
Instant Virtual Machines can be created from___________? (Select all that applies)
a. Agent-based Windows Backup.
b. UNC or NFS Path Backup
c. Agent-based Linux Backup.
d. Host-based Agentless Backup.
 
Using the Recover VM option you can restore a virtual machine (VM) that you previously backed up using: (Select all that applies.)
a. Host-Based agentless Backup VMware.
b. Host-Based agentless Backup Hyper-V.
c. Arcserve UDP Agent for Windows.
 
Which of the following files contain information about Diskspace and other statistics of the Destination folder?
a. Diskspace.status
b. BackuplnfoDB.xml
c. Statistic.dat
d. SessCFG.ses
 
Which of the following compression level is not applicable for Copy Recovery Point from a stand-alone Arcserve UDP Windows Agent?
a. No compression
b. No Compression - VHD
c. No Compression - VMDK
d. Standard Compression
 
In an oracle plan, selecting "Disable block change tracking" on the source database rs available only for
a. Enterprise Edition of Oracle
b. Standard Edition of Oracle
c. Developer Edition of Oracle
d. All the above
 
Which of the following are valid test types in an Assured Recovery task?
a. IVM - Instant Virtual Machine
b. IVD - Instant Virtual Disk
c. VSB - Virtual Standby
 
What is the default agent installation protocol?
a. HTTPS
b. FTP
c. SSL
d. HTTP
 
Virtualization platforms supported for Virtual standby are
a. Hyper-V
b. EC2
c. Azure
d. KVM
 
Which if the following roles in Cloud Console have access to the below function. "User management and full administrative permissions within the MSP account and all customer (tenant) accounts.'?
a. MSP Admin
b. MSP Super Admin
c. MSP Monitor
 
BMR ISO image created using Windows 11 ADK works for which of the following source operating systems
a. Windows 11
b. Windows Server 2016
c. Windows server 2019
d. Windows Server 2022
 
Select the transport modes that can be used for VMware Agentless Host-based VM backup
a. NBDSSL
b. SAN
c. HOTADD
d. None of the above
 
With Arcserve UDP User Interface, user can________? (Select all that applies)
a. Manage and Monitor Jobs.
b. Add and Manage Source & Destinations.
c. Enable Debug
d. Restore Backup Data.

In conclusion, obtaining the Arcserve Certified Engineer certification demonstrates a comprehensive understanding of Arcserve solutions and their application in data protection and recovery strategies. By delving into the exam topics and corresponding answers outlined in this article, individuals can enhance their proficiency in implementing and managing Arcserve technologies effectively. This certification not only validates technical expertise but also opens doors to new career opportunities and enables professionals to contribute significantly to ensuring the resilience and continuity of critical business data.

Is a Scrum Master essentially the same thing as a traditional PM?

 

Scrum Master VS Project Manager

No, a Scrum Master is not essentially the same thing as a traditional Project Manager (PM). While both roles involve facilitating and supporting the work of a team, they operate in different frameworks and have distinct focuses and responsibilities.

Here are key differences between a Scrum Master and a traditional Project Manager:

1. Framework:

   • Scrum Master: Operates within the Scrum framework, which is an agile framework for product development.
   • Traditional Project Manager: Operates within traditional project management methodologies, which can be predictive (e.g., Waterfall) or adaptive (e.g., Agile outside of Scrum).

2. Role Focus:

   • Scrum Master: Primarily focused on ensuring that the Scrum Team understands and follows Scrum principles and practices. Facilitates Scrum events, removes impediments, and helps the team continuously improve.
   • Traditional Project Manager: Primarily focused on planning, executing, and closing projects. May be involved in defining project scope, managing resources, creating schedules, and ensuring the project is delivered on time and within budget.

3. Team Empowerment:

   • Scrum Master: Empowers and serves the Scrum Team, enabling self-organization and fostering a culture of continuous improvement.
   • Traditional Project Manager: Often takes a more directive role, making decisions and providing direction to team members.

4. Change Management:

   • Scrum Master: Focuses on facilitating change within the team and the organization, helping them adapt to an agile way of working.
   • Traditional Project Manager: May be involved in change management, but the approach can vary based on the project management methodology used.

5. Decision-Making:

   • Scrum Master: Facilitates decision-making within the Scrum Team, encouraging collaboration and consensus.
   • Traditional Project Manager: Often makes decisions and provides direction to team members.

6. Project Control:

   • Scrum Master: Focuses on removing impediments and facilitating the work of the Scrum Team. Does not control the work but helps the team achieve its goals.
   • Traditional Project Manager: Often involved in more direct control of project elements, such as schedules, budgets, and resource allocation.

What is the time-box for the Sprint Planning meeting?

The time-box for the Sprint Planning meeting in Scrum is a maximum of 8 hours for a one-month Sprint. The Scrum Guide provides guidance on the time-box for Sprint Planning based on the length of the Sprint.

1. One-Month Sprint:

   • For Sprints with a duration of one month or less, the time-box for Sprint Planning is a maximum of 8 hours.

2. Shorter Sprints:

   • For Sprints that are shorter than one month, the time-box for Sprint Planning is proportionally shorter. For example, if the Sprint is two weeks, the time-box for Sprint Planning would be a maximum of 4 hours.

While the time-box provides a maximum limit, teams are encouraged to keep the meeting as short as needed to achieve its purpose. The focus is on efficient collaboration and planning to set the team up for a successful Sprint.

Who creates the increment in scrum?

The Increment in Scrum is created by the Development Team. This reflects the self-organizing and cross-functional nature of Scrum teams, where individuals collaborate to deliver value and continuously improve the product. The Scrum Guide explicitly states that the Development Team is responsible for delivering a potentially releasable Increment of the product by the end of each Sprint. 

What is the Increment in scrum?

In Scrum, the Increment is a key concept that represents the sum of all the Product Backlog items completed during the Sprint and the value of the increments of all previous Sprints.  The Increment must be in a potentially releasable state, meaning that it meets the Definition of Done and could be delivered to stakeholders at the end of the Sprint.

The Increment is a central focus in Scrum, aligning with the framework's empirical and iterative nature. It allows for frequent inspection and adaptation, ensuring that the product is continually refined based on feedback and evolving requirements. The commitment to a potentially releasable Increment at the end of each Sprint is a key aspect of Scrum's effectiveness in delivering value incrementally.

What is the Sprint Backlog?

Sprint Backlog is Sprint Goal and the Product Backlog items selected for this Sprint plus the plan for delivering them.The Sprint Backlog is a dynamic, evolving artifact within the Scrum framework. It is a subset of the Product Backlog and represents the work that the Development Team plans to complete during the upcoming Sprint. The Sprint Backlog is created during the Sprint Planning event, where the team collaborates with the Product Owner to select and commit to a set of Product Backlog Items that contribute to the Sprint Goal.

Sprint Backlog is a tool for the Development Team to plan and manage their work during the Sprint. It is distinct from the Product Backlog, which represents the full prioritized list of work for the product. The Sprint Backlog is a snapshot for the current Sprint and supports the team in achieving the Sprint Goal.